AIBE 20 — Sample MCQ Practice Set (100 Questions)
Format: 100 objective questions, 4 options each. Each
question is followed by the correct answer and a short explanation.
1. Which Article of the Constitution guarantees Right to
Equality?
A. Article 14
B. Article 21
C. Article 19
D. Article 15
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before law and
equal protection of laws.
2. 'Mens rea' means:
A. The guilty act
B. The guilty mind
C. Legal duty
D. Strict liability
Answer: B
Explanation: Mens rea refers to the mental element or guilty
intention required for many offences.
3. Under which Section of Evidence Act is hearsay generally
inadmissible?
A. Section 32
B. Section 60
C. Section 59
D. Section 45
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 59 deals with admissibility of oral
evidence; hearsay is generally inadmissible.
4. Who can file Public Interest Litigation in India?
A. Only aggrieved
person
B. Any
public-spirited person or NGO
C. Only Advocate
D. Only Government
Answer: B
Explanation: Courts have liberalized locus standi;
public-spirited persons and NGOs can approach courts.
5. Under the Advocates Act, 1961, who regulates professional
conduct of lawyers?
A. Supreme Court
B. Bar Council of
India
C. State Government
D. Law Ministry
Answer: B
Explanation: Bar Council of India frames rules for
professional conduct under the Advocates Act.
6. Which section of IPC defines 'Cheating'?
A. Section 405
B. Section 415
C. Section 420
D. Section 403
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 415 defines cheating; Section 420
prescribes punishment for cheating.
7. In writ jurisdiction, which writ is issued for release of
a person unlawfully detained?
A. Mandamus
B. Certiorari
C. Habeas Corpus
D. Prohibition
Answer: C
Explanation: Habeas Corpus protects personal liberty and
releases persons unlawfully detained.
8. The doctrine that Parliament cannot amend the basic
structure of the Constitution is called:
A. Doctrine of
Severability
B. Basic Structure
Doctrine
C. Doctrine of
Eclipse
D. Doctrine of Pith
and Substance
Answer: B
Explanation: The Basic Structure Doctrine was evolved in
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.
9. Under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, which of the following is
a ground for divorce?
A. Failure to keep
accounts
B. Cruelty
C. Race difference
D. Wearing
different clothes
Answer: B
Explanation: Cruelty is a statutory ground for divorce under
Section 13.
10. Which remedy is available under CrPC to challenge
illegal detention by police?
A. Anticipatory
bail
B. Regular bail
C. Writ of Habeas
Corpus
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation: Habeas Corpus before High Court/Supreme Court
challenges illegal detention.
11. The principle 'Res ipsa loquitur' is used in:
A. Contract Law
B. Tort Law
C. Criminal Law
D. Company Law
Answer: B
Explanation: Res ipsa loquitur means the thing speaks for
itself, used in negligence in tort law.
12. Under the Companies Act, which body manages the company?
A. Shareholders
B. Board of
Directors
C. Registrar
D. Auditors
Answer: B
Explanation: Management of the company is vested in the
Board of Directors.
13. The power of judicial review in India is exercised by:
A. Parliament
B. Executive
C. Courts
D. President
Answer: C
Explanation: Judicial review is exercised by the judiciary
to test constitutionality of laws.
14. Which section of IPC deals with 'Attempt to commit
suicide'?
A. Section 309
B. Section 306
C. Section 304
D. Section 302
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 309 historically dealt with attempt to
commit suicide; recent statutes and schemes affect its application but it's in
the IPC.
15. A contract without consideration is:
A. Void
B. Voidable
C. Valid if in
writing under seal
D. Illegal
Answer: C
Explanation: A contract made by way of gift or under seal
(where applicable) may be valid even without consideration; generally
consideration is essential.
16. Under the Evidence Act, expert evidence is admissible
under which section?
A. Section 45
B. Section 41
C. Section 27
D. Section 73
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 45 deals with opinion of experts as
relevant facts.
17. 'Doctrine of Severability' is applied in:
A. Criminal cases
B. Constitutional
law
C. Contract
interpretation
D. Family law
Answer: B
Explanation: Doctrine of Severability helps strike down
unconstitutional portions while keeping valid parts.
18. The prevention of corruption is governed primarily by
which Act?
A. Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988
B. Criminal
Procedure Code
C. Evidence Act
D. IPC
Answer: A
Explanation: The Prevention of Corruption Act deals
specifically with anti-corruption offences.
19. Which Article deals with protection against arrest and
detention in certain cases?
A. Article 22
B. Article 21
C. Article 20
D. Article 19
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 22 provides safeguards against
arbitrary arrest and detention.
20. Which of these is a 'quasi-judicial' body?
A. Parliament
B. Income Tax
Appellate Tribunal
C. Election
Commission
D. Executive
Answer: B
Explanation: Tribunals like ITAT exercise quasi-judicial
functions.
21. 'Nemo dat quod non habet' refers to:
A. Buyer beware
B. No one gives
what he does not have
C. Good faith
D. Caveat emptor
Answer: B
Explanation: It is a legal maxim meaning one cannot give
better title than he has.
22. Which section of CrPC deals with bail in non-bailable
offences (general provision)?
A. Section 436
B. Section 437
C. Section 439
D. Section 438
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 437 deals with bail in non-bailable
offences; section 439 gives power to High Court and Sessions Court.
23. Under Right to Information Act, the public authority
must respond within how many days for ordinary requests?
A. 10 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
Answer: B
Explanation: RTI Act requires response within 30 days for
most requests; for life and liberty matters it is 48 hours.
24. Which landmark case established the 'basic structure'
doctrine?
A. Golaknath v.
State of Punjab
B. Kesavananda
Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Minerva Mills v.
Union of India
D. Maneka Gandhi v.
Union of India
Answer: B
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) laid down the basic
structure doctrine.
25. Under the Limitation Act, the period for filing a suit
for breach of simple contract is how many years?
A. 3 years
B. 6 years
C. 1 year
D. 4 years
Answer: A
Explanation: Limitation for suits founded on simple
contracts is three years from the date of breach.
26. The essential elements of negligence include:
A. Intention to
harm
B. Duty of care,
breach, causation, damage
C. Criminal intent
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation: Negligence requires duty, breach, causation and
damages.
27. 'Consideration' under Indian Contract Act must be:
A. Real and lawful
B. Illusory
C. Past only
D. Illegal
Answer: A
Explanation: Consideration must be lawful, real, and not
illegal.
28. Which section of IPC deals with defamation?
A. Section 499
B. Section 500
C. Section 501
D. Section 502
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 499 defines defamation; Section 500
prescribes punishment.
29. Under CPC, the court of first instance for civil suits
is usually:
A. Supreme Court
B. District
Court/Civil Judge
C. High Court
D. Magistrate
Answer: B
Explanation: Civil suits are generally instituted in courts
of original jurisdiction like Civil Judge or District Court depending on value.
30. The power to issue ordinances is vested in the President
under which Article?
A. Article 123
B. Article 213
C. Article 356
D. Article 77
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 123 empowers the President to
promulgate ordinances.
31. Under Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, daughters have
equal coparcenary rights from birth. This amendment was made in which year?
A. 2005
B. 2000
C. 1995
D. 2010
Answer: A
Explanation: The 2005 amendment granted daughters equal
coparcenary rights.
32. Which provision deals with anticipatory bail?
A. Section 437
B. Section 438
C. Section 439
D. Section 440
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 438 provides for anticipatory bail.
33. The principle of 'stare decisis' belongs to which legal
system?
A. Civil law
B. Common law
C. Islamic law
D. Customary law
Answer: B
Explanation: Stare decisis (judicial precedent) is
characteristic of common law systems.
34. Which Article prohibits discrimination on grounds of
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth?
A. Article 16
B. Article 15
C. Article 14
D. Article 17
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 15 prohibits discrimination on those
grounds.
35. Under PMLA, which agency investigates money laundering
offences?
A. CBI
B. Enforcement
Directorate
C. NIA
D. Police
Answer: B
Explanation: Enforcement Directorate enforces PMLA and
investigates money laundering.
36. 'Burden of proof' generally lies on which party?
A. The defendant
B. The
plaintiff/prosecution
C. Court
D. Witness
Answer: B
Explanation: Generally the party who asserts a fact must
prove it.
37. Which writ is issued to quash an order of an inferior
court?
A. Mandamus
B. Certiorari
C. Habeas Corpus
D. Quo Warranto
Answer: B
Explanation: Certiorari is used to quash orders of inferior
courts or tribunals.
38. The doctrine of 'prospective overrule' is used to:
A. Apply new rule
only in future cases
B. Apply
retroactively
C. Never change law
D. Only in civil
cases
Answer: A
Explanation: Prospective overruling limits application of
new rules to future cases to avoid injustice.
39. An arbitral award in India can be enforced as:
A. A suit
B. A decree of the
court
C. A police order
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation: An arbitral award can be filed and enforced as
a decree under the Arbitration Act.
40. Which case expanded Article 21 to include 'right to
livelihood'?
A. Maneka Gandhi v.
Union of India
B. Olga Tellis v.
Bombay Municipal Corporation
C. KSR v. Union of
India
D. Sunil Batra
Answer: B
Explanation: Olga Tellis recognized that livelihood is
integral to life and hence part of Article 21.
41. 'Abetment' is defined under which section of IPC?
A. Section 107
B. Section 108
C. Section 109
D. Section 110
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 107 defines abetment; Section 109
pertains to abetment of an offence.
42. Which of the following is NOT a negotiable instrument?
A. Promissory note
B. Cheque
C. Receipt
D. Bill of exchange
Answer: C
Explanation: A receipt is not a negotiable instrument.
43. The primary object of investigation under CrPC is to:
A. Punish accused
B. Collect evidence
to bring accused to trial
C. Decide guilt
D. Grant bail
Answer: B
Explanation: Investigation collects evidence and submits
report/charge-sheet for trial.
44. Fundamental duties are listed under which Article?
A. Article 51A
B. Article 49
C. Article 45
D. Article 21A
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 51A enumerates fundamental duties.
45. The 'Doctrine of Eclipse' means:
A. A law
inconsistent with fundamental rights becomes inoperative to extent of
inconsistency
B. Law is always
invalid
C. Law is partly
valid
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation: Doctrine of Eclipse renders inconsistent laws
inoperative to extent of inconsistency with fundamental rights.
46. 'Culpable homicide not amounting to murder' is defined
in which section?
A. Section 299
B. Section 300
C. Section 307
D. Section 302
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 299 defines culpable homicide not
amounting to murder.
47. Under Right to Education Act, free and compulsory
education is for children aged:
A. 3–6 years
B. 6–14 years
C. 5–15 years
D. 6–18 years
Answer: B
Explanation: RTE provides free and compulsory education for
children aged 6–14.
48. A 'constructive trust' arises by:
A. Express
agreement
B. Operation of law
C. Statute only
D. Court order only
Answer: B
Explanation: Constructive trust arises by operation of law
to prevent unjust enrichment.
49. Transfer of immovable property is primarily governed by
which Act?
A. Transfer of
Property Act, 1882
B. Indian Contract
Act
C. Specific Relief
Act
D. Registration Act
Answer: A
Explanation: Transfer of Property Act governs transfers of
immovable property.
50. The doctrine of 'merger' implies:
A. When inferior
estate merges into superior, it is extinguished
B. Companies merge
C. Property is
split
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation: Merger extinguishes the inferior estate when it
merges into the superior.
51. 'Grievous hurt' is defined in which section of IPC?
A. Section 320
B. Section 321
C. Section 325
D. Section 328
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 320 lists kinds of hurt considered
grievous.
52. Minerva Mills case reaffirmed which doctrine?
A. Doctrine of
Pleasure
B. Basic Structure
Doctrine
C. Doctrine of
Eclipse
D. Rule of Law
Answer: B
Explanation: Minerva Mills reinforced the Basic Structure
Doctrine and limited Parliament's amending power.
53. 'Caveat emptor' primarily concerns which area?
A. Contracts of
sale
B. Criminal law
C. Probate
D. Matrimonial law
Answer: A
Explanation: Caveat emptor (buyer beware) applies in sale
contracts.
54. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Parliamentary
Committee
D. Supreme Court
Answer: A
Explanation: The President appoints the Chief Election
Commissioner.
55. Offences under SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act are
generally:
A. Non-cognizable
and bailable
B. Cognizable and
non-bailable
C. Civil only
D. Petty offences
Answer: B
Explanation: Many offences under the Act are cognizable and
non-bailable to ensure strict enforcement.
56. 'Quantum meruit' allows recovery when:
A. Contract fully
performed
B. Services
rendered but no enforceable contract exists
C. No services
provided
D. Contract illegal
Answer: B
Explanation: Quantum meruit enables recovery for benefits
conferred when contract unenforceable.
57. Criminal breach of trust is defined under which section?
A. Section 405
B. Section 406
C. Section 407
D. Section 408
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 405 defines criminal breach of trust;
Section 406 prescribes punishment.
58. The proportionality test is primarily applied in:
A. Contract damages
B. Constitutional
law to test restrictions on rights
C. Evidence law
D. Tort law
Answer: B
Explanation: Proportionality assesses if restrictions on
fundamental rights are appropriate and necessary.
59. 'Wrongful restraint' is defined under which section of
IPC?
A. Section 339
B. Section 340
C. Section 341
D. Section 342
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 339 defines wrongful restraint.
60. Article 50 of the Constitution deals with:
A. Separation of
judiciary from executive
B. Independence of
judiciary
C. Appointment of
judges
D. Judicial review
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 50 directs the State to separate the
judiciary from the executive in public services.
61. 'Nemo plus iuris...' principle relates to:
A. Transfer of
title
B. Evidence law
C. Criminal law
D. Family law
Answer: A
Explanation: One cannot transfer more rights than one
possesses; relates to transfer of title.
62. Appeals from National Green Tribunal lie to which court?
A. High Court
B. Supreme Court
C. Appellate
Tribunal
D. District Court
Answer: B
Explanation: Appeals from NGT are to the Supreme Court on
questions of law.
63. Confessions recorded by Magistrate are under which
section of CrPC?
A. Section 164
B. Section 161
C. Section 162
D. Section 165
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 164 provides for recording confessions
and statements by Magistrates.
64. Specific performance is governed by which Act?
A. Indian Contract
Act
B. Specific Relief
Act
C. Transfer of
Property Act
D. Registration Act
Answer: B
Explanation: Specific Relief Act contains provisions for
specific performance.
65. 'Dowry death' is addressed under which section of IPC?
A. Section 304B
B. Section 302
C. Section 306
D. Section 498A
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 304B penalizes death within seven years
of marriage where dowry demands were met with cruelty or harassment.
66. Grounds for judicial review do NOT normally include:
A. Illegality
B. Irrationality
C. Procedural
impropriety
D. Mere policy
disagreement
Answer: D
Explanation: Courts do not intervene purely on policy
disagreements; they review legality and procedure.
67. Consumer disputes are adjudicated under which forum at
district level?
A. District
Consumer Forum
B. High Court
C. Lok Adalat
D. Trial Court
Answer: A
Explanation: District Consumer Forums handle complaints
within specified monetary limits.
68. Admissibility of electronic record is provided under
which section of Evidence Act?
A. Section 65B
B. Section 65A
C. Section 66A
D. Section 67
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 65B prescribes conditions for
admissibility of electronic records.
69. Interim measures in arbitration can be granted by:
A. Only court
B. Arbitral
tribunal and court
C. Police
D. Arbitrator only
Answer: B
Explanation: Both arbitral tribunal and courts can grant
interim reliefs under the Arbitration Act.
70. During National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on
State List under which Article?
A. Article 249
B. Article 250
C. Article 253
D. Article 356
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 250 empowers Parliament to make laws
for State subjects during national emergency.
71. Doctrine of frustration is covered under which section?
A. Section 56,
Indian Contract Act
B. Section 65
C. Section 73
D. Section 74
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 56 deals with impossibility and
frustration of contracts.
72. Kedar Nath Singh case clarified scope of which offence?
A. Sedition
(Section 124A)
B. Rioting
C. Promoting enmity
D. Contempt
Answer: A
Explanation: Kedar Nath Singh limited sedition to acts
involving incitement to violence or public disorder.
73. Third-party motor insurance covers:
A. Driver's
personal injury only
B. Death or bodily
injury to third parties and property damage to third parties
C. Own vehicle
damage
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation: Third-party insurance covers liabilities
towards third parties.
74. Promissory estoppel prevents:
A. Creation of
contract
B. Promisor denying
promise when promisee acted on it
C. Criminal
liability
D. Transfer of
property
Answer: B
Explanation: Promissory estoppel bars going back on a
promise relied upon by the other party.
75. President's power to grant pardon is under which
Article?
A. Article 72
B. Article 74
C. Article 75
D. Article 78
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 72 vests power to grant pardons and
reprieves in the President.
76. Attempt to murder is covered under which section of IPC?
A. Section 307
B. Section 302
C. Section 304
D. Section 306
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 307 deals with attempt to murder.
77. 'He who comes to equity must come with clean hands'
means:
A. Courts prefer
plaintiffs
B. Claimant must
act fairly and not be guilty of misconduct
C. Equity never
applies
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation: Equitable relief requires the claimant to have
acted fairly.
78. Character evidence in civil cases is generally:
A. Always
admissible
B. Generally
inadmissible to prove conduct
C. Only for
documentary evidence
D. Only for experts
Answer: B
Explanation: Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
prove conduct, subject to exceptions.
79. Which of the following is part of Basic Structure?
A. Secularism
B. Royal assent
C. Parliamentary
sovereignty
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation: Secularism has been held to be part of the
basic structure of the Constitution.
80. Sustainable development as legal principle in India has
been emphasized in judgments by which judge/bench?
A. MC Mehta series
(Supreme Court)
B. Kesavananda
Bharati only
C. A K Gopalan
D. Shah Bano
Answer: A
Explanation: MC Mehta cases integrated sustainable
development into environmental jurisprudence.
81. Protection from double jeopardy is under which Article?
A. Article 20(2)
B. Article 21
C. Article 20(1)
D. Article 22
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 20(2) protects against being tried
twice for the same offence.
82. Pith and substance doctrine helps determine:
A. Whether a law is
colourable exercise of power
B. Jurisdiction of
court procedurally
C. Admissibility of
evidence
D. Nature of tort
Answer: A
Explanation: Pith and substance assesses the true nature of
legislation for constitutional validity.
83. Employer's duty under POSH Act includes:
A. Constituting
Internal Complaints Committee
B. Immediate FIR
filing
C. Paying
compensation directly
D. Nothing
Answer: A
Explanation: Employers must constitute an ICC to address
complaints under POSH.
84. For sale of immovable property, which legal requirement
is commonly necessary?
A. Written and
registered instrument
B. Oral agreement
suffices
C. Notarization
only
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation: Sale of immovable property generally requires a
registered instrument under the Registration Act.
85. Criminal intimidation is under which section?
A. Section 503
B. Section 502
C. Section 504
D. Section 505
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 503 defines criminal intimidation.
86. Pro bono legal services are encouraged by:
A. Bar Council
Rules and judicial directions
B. Only NGOs
C. Only Supreme
Court
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation: Bar Council and courts promote pro bono
services via rules and directives.
87. Res judicata is embodied in which section of CPC?
A. Section 10
B. Section 11
C. Section 12
D. Section 13
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 10 of the CPC embodies the principle of
res judicata.
88. Relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive
Principles is:
A. DPSP prevail
B. Meant to be
harmonious, FR enforceable
C. Identical
D. FR always
subordinate
Answer: B
Explanation: Directive Principles guide governance while
Fundamental Rights are enforceable; courts harmonize both.
89. Documentary evidence must be:
A. Proven as
primary evidence when available
B. Always secondary
C. Proven by oath
only
D. Ignored if oral
exists
Answer: A
Explanation: Primary documentary evidence should be produced
when available and proved as per law.
90. Criminal conspiracy is covered under which sections?
A. Sections 120A
and 120B
B. Section 121
C. Section 122
D. Section 123
Answer: A
Explanation: Sections 120A and 120B define and punish
criminal conspiracy.
91. Juvenile proceedings are mandated to be:
A. Open and public
B. Confidential and
child-friendly
C. Identical to
adult trials
D. Non-judicial
Answer: B
Explanation: Juvenile justice emphasizes confidentiality and
child-friendly procedures.
92. Absolute liability in India originated from which case?
A. Rylands v.
Fletcher
B. M.C. Mehta v.
Union of India (Oleum gas leak)
C. Kesavananda
Bharati
D. Olga Tellis
Answer: B
Explanation: MC Mehta case evolved the principle of absolute
liability for hazardous industries.
93. High Courts can issue writs under which Article?
A. Article 226
B. Article 32
C. Article 129
D. Article 141
Answer: A
Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs
for enforcement of rights.
94. 'Void ab initio' means:
A. Valid from the
start
B. Void from the
beginning
C. Voidable at
option
D. Enforceable
Answer: B
Explanation: Void ab initio indicates invalidity from the
outset.
95. Summary trials are for which offences?
A. Petty offences
specified in CrPC
B. Offences
punishable with death
C. High-value
frauds
D. Civil disputes
Answer : A
Explanation : According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC), summary trials are generally applicable to offences not punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment exceeding two years.
96. Which of the following amounts to professional misconduct under the BCI Rules?
A. A lawyer appearing against his close friend
B. A lawyer advertising his services on social media
C. A lawyer refusing a case due to personal reasons
D. A lawyer charging reasonable fees according to BCI guidelines
Answer: B
Explanation : Under Rule 36, BCI Rules, an advocate shall not advertise or solicit work.
97. In which case was an advocate suspended for “misappropriation of client’s money”?
A. P.D. Gupta v. Ram Murti
B. V.C. Rangadurai v. D. Gopalan
C. Noratanmal Chouraria v. M.R. Murli
D. In Re: An Advocate (1962)
Answer: A
Reason: In P.D. Gupta v. Ram Murti, the Supreme Court held that misappropriation of client funds is serious professional misconduct.
98. Under the Advocates Act, who has the power to punish an advocate for professional misconduct?
A. Supreme Court alone
B. Bar Council of India
C. High Court
D. District Judge
Answer: B
Explanation : Under Section 36 & 36-B of the Advocates Act, Bar Council of India can discipline advocates and impose punishment.
99. Which of the following conducts does not amount to professional misconduct?
A. An advocate appearing in a matter where he has a financial interest
B. An advocate threatening the opposite party
C. An advocate communicating with a judge privately
D. An advocate accepting engagement directly from a client without a vakalatnama
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A vakalatnama is usually required to represent in court, but accepting engagement itself is not misconduct. Other options clearly violate BCI ethics.
Disclaimer:
These are only sample MCQs and are not intended to represent actual exam questions. Please study carefully. If you notice any mistake in the questions or answers, kindly inform us so we can improve and correct them.
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